Over at UK Polling Report they have an average of polls; it shows 39-30-19. This means that there is 12 for ‘others’.
Historically this is very high.
Go back to 1979 and you find ….
44-37-14 — with 5 for others.
Currently that means that Tories have 44% of the none ‘others’, whilst in 1979 they had 46%. Not much difference.
This high rise in ‘others’ accounts for the fall in share of labour and tory votes. The LibDem vote is the one that has risen against this trend – following the 1997 lib/lab pact.
Will we see 12% for others in the coming election. Are the polls correctly picking up their (and libdem) correct representation?
Will voting either libdem or ‘others’ help keep Brown in power? Or when faced on the day with knowing which way they have to vote to remove labour, will this colour the actual vote (especially in marginals) ??
Its easy to see why Brown wants to keep this lib/lab pact (via PR) going isn’t it ?? Will libdems buy this pig in a poke again??
And are the polls really currently predicting what will happen when the election starts?